lnseed lnseed
  • 02-03-2021
  • History
contestada

Why did George Washington one slaves

Respuesta :

lenlencute1111
lenlencute1111 lenlencute1111
  • 02-03-2021

The reason why has to do with law, marriage and a family that disagreed with their patriarch's evolving views on slavery. Like nearly all wealthy landowners in Virginia, George Washington owned enslaved people who worked his land. He received the first enslaved workers of his own when his father died in 1743.

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

What specific properties are these? A. 3+(5+9)+6=5(9+6)+3 B. 3 x 4 x 5= 4 x 3 x 5
Generally, since the beginning of the twentieth century, the word imitation is usually associated with _______ rather than superior art
2 (-20)+3 [5/4 (-20)]+5 [2/5 (50]+4 (50)
What is the value of X. Triangles 39 is one angle and 102 is the other angle
What is the square root of 52?
What was the significance of the Lend-Lease Act? -It represented an American violation of existing diplomatic agreements. Americans violated the Munich Pact. -I
What was the significance of the Lend-Lease Act? -It represented an American violation of existing diplomatic agreements. Americans violated the Munich Pact. -I
Generally, since the beginning of the twentieth century, the word imitation is usually associated with _______ rather than superior art
a number that multiply by -15 can give me adding +2
add together one and three quarters and two and a quarter and three